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Lashkar-e-islam Impose Jazia On Sikhs In Khyber Pass


Kaljug

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First Orakzai in NWFP, now the Khyber Pass. Donchya just love those Muslims?

http://www.dawn.com/wps/wcm/connect/dawn-c...-agency-szh--08

Jazia tax imposed on Sikhs of Khyber Agency

By Ibrahim Shinwari

Wednesday, 03 Jun, 2009 | 03:54 AM PST |

BARA: Lashkar-i-Islam (Army of Islam) has imposed Jazia tax on non-Muslims at the rate of Rs1,000 per year per person on Sikhs living in Bara tehsil of Khyber Agency.

The decision was taken at a meeting between Lashkar-i-Islam chief Mangal Bagh and a delegation of the Sikh community held in Speen Qabar on Tuesday.

Lashkar Islam chief assured the delegation that if they paid the tax they would be fully protected from any threat.

About 7,000 Sikhs live in the Khyber Agency.

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I'm not condoning this tax, but just out of interest, is not what we pay to our respective Governments in terms of tax which funds the MOD an equivalent to Jazia i.e. funding wars and protection we haven't asked for? Key difference is obviously only non-Muslims are charged, but non-Muslims aren't expected to fight either...

Also, how does Jazia compare to the protection (rakhiya) tax that the Misledars charged residents in their lands...

Just some food for thought.

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As far as i know, the jiziya tax is much lower than the tax that muslims have to pay in the islamic state (Khums and zakat)

Amardeep: Nope.

Shaheediyan,

There is a discussion regarding jizya here:

http://www.jihadwatch.org/dhimmiwatch/archives/003260.php

The main use of jizya was to compel non-Muslims to accept Islam. I can look up the primary sources regarding jizya for you if you are interested, or you can consult Andrew G Bostom's The Legacy of Jihad.

K.

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Thats a pretty one sided, Islamaphobic and agenda driven article. I am all for challenging unfair laws, and I vehemently disagree with some aspects of Sharia, but if one is going to discuss intelligently, at least take into account both sides of the arguement (real arguement, not hand picked).

As an example:

"If the jizya had really been less than zakat, human nature being what it is, we would have seen large-scale conversions of Muslims to Christianity in the great Islamic empires -- but of course we don't, because who would want to exchange the position of the dominator for that of the dominated?"

On what basis has this assumption been made. Where is the evidence that a Muslim would change his faith due to a change in tax law? If a Muslims loyalty to Islam is so weak, why don't we see mass conversions in countries where Muslims are victims of hate and prejudice?

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Isn't Zakat just 1 or 3 percent of a Muslim's income?? How is that compared to Jaziya? Jaziya is much more than Zakat. In India Only the tolerant minded Akbar had lifted the discrminatory Jaziya tax while all other Mughal kings had imposed it upon the Kafirs. Jaziya was started in order to press the Kafirs to leave their faith of birth to the religion of Islam where they would no longer have to give Jaziya.

The Chauth that the misildars had imposed was not only against non Sikhs. It was for everyone, and the Chauth was an old tradition of collecting tax in India. The Marathas had also used the Chauth system for collecting tax. It had nothing to do with religion. If anything, the Sikhs had to give more tax than the non Sikhs since the Sikhs also had to give Dasvandh on top of Chauth.

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Thats a pretty one sided, Islamaphobic and agenda driven article. I am all for challenging unfair laws, and I vehemently disagree with some aspects of Sharia, but if one is going to discuss intelligently, at least take into account both sides of the arguement (real arguement, not hand picked).

As an example:

"If the jizya had really been less than zakat, human nature being what it is, we would have seen large-scale conversions of Muslims to Christianity in the great Islamic empires -- but of course we don't, because who would want to exchange the position of the dominator for that of the dominated?"

On what basis has this assumption been made. Where is the evidence that a Muslim would change his faith due to a change in tax law? If a Muslims loyalty to Islam is so weak, why don't we see mass conversions in countries where Muslims are victims of hate and prejudice?

Fateh!

Firstly I suggest that you let go of the term Islamophobia which has been created by Muslims to prevent criticism of Islam and its discriminatory laws.

The above quote is merely the author's opinion based on his understanding of human nature, the rest of the article is not. But tell me: where in the world is this place you talk about where Muslims are subject to discriminatory laws based on religious persuasion that apply only to followers of Islam? Despite the fact that there may be discrimination against Muslims by a minority of individuals on certain occasions and at certain times, there is no country in the world in which the state conspires to provide actual incentives for a Muslim to change his faith.

Now compare the countries where Islam is the dominant force and see how the population of non-Muslims has decreased over time. Look at Bangladesh and Pakistan for example.

If you want to look at the primary sources (texts of Islamic jurisprudence), read the book by Andrew G Bostom that was mentioned earlier in this thread. All of the texts have been translated from the Arabic, so you can read it and make up your own mind.

Regards,

K.

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