tSingh Posted August 17, 2008 Report Share Posted August 17, 2008 I recall reading eons ago bahadur ali saying something about how once it was the case that a wife would take her husbands caste on marriage if there was any disparity. I've read something similar recently and was wondering if anyone knows a source for this or can corroborate it? thanks 0 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Malwe Da Sher Posted August 17, 2008 Report Share Posted August 17, 2008 If I recall correctly theres a sakhi in Bijai Mukht Dharam Shastra Granth where Maharaj says a women takes both the jaat and dharam of her husband. 0 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
fatehsingh Posted August 17, 2008 Report Share Posted August 17, 2008 As per Twareekh Khalsa, Gianiji seems to imply that based on his research typically every major caste or 'Gote' today is guilty at one point or another of taking women of the lower castes into their own. Gianiji had given many examples, including the Rajya's Poot (Rajpoot) history in particular. But ofcourse this is from the 1920's publishing by Khalsa tract society so other Granths should also be consulted and there are a few contradictions starting from the title itself: "Twareekh 'Guru' Khalsa" printed on the cover vs. "Twareekh Khalsa" mentioned in the text itself. Also many foreign (english) words being used in the text. 0 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
tSingh Posted August 17, 2008 Author Report Share Posted August 17, 2008 Thank you! I have it from one source that in the 'old times' just as a wife took on her husbands caste on marriage, so a shish took on his guru's caste on initiation (hence the khalsa sodhi kshatriya thing). I've got something seeming to allude to that in a code of conduct from another tradition, that 'one should never be initiated by a guru of a lesser caste'. But manusmriti talks about the seventh generation of a mixed marriage regaining the husband's original jaat meaning that the wife does not actually change jaat at all. 0 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
chatanga1 Posted September 16, 2008 Report Share Posted September 16, 2008 can i ask if why didnt "karan" take on the caste of his shish "Parshuram" . any1 familiar with this episode will recall how Parshuram actually gave Karan a saraap when he foudn out that he wasnt a brahman but a low caste. 0 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
shaheediyan Posted September 16, 2008 Report Share Posted September 16, 2008 Bhagat Kabir Ji didn't take on the caste of Swami Ramanand either - as is evident per their self-reference in Gurbani. Wife adopting her Husbands dharam/jaath makes complete sense though - same wasy children adopt their fathers name, dharm, jaath (traditionally). 0 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
unbreakable Posted September 16, 2008 Report Share Posted September 16, 2008 . 0 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
shaheediyan Posted September 16, 2008 Report Share Posted September 16, 2008 In Islamic tradition - man can marry a girl of the kitebs i.e. Jewish or Christian, but children are then raised as Muslim. Muslim woman can only marry a Muslim man. "one should never be initiated by a guru of a lesser caste" Example of Bhagat Ravidas Ji and his shish Mirabhai again contradicts this theory/tradition. 0 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
chatanga1 Posted September 17, 2008 Report Share Posted September 17, 2008 can i ask if why didnt "karan" take on the caste of his shish "Parshuram" . any1 familiar with this episode will recall how Parshuram actually gave Karan a saraap when he foudn out that he wasnt a brahman but a low caste. OMG!! i have just read the question i asked yesterday and im surprised that no-one saw it. Karan was the shish of Parashuram. I got the wrong way round. why didnt "karan" take on the caste of his GURU "Parshuram" ? also Bhagwaan Ram Chandr and Bhagwaan Krishn were of kshatryi varan whereas their Gurus (vashist,vishvamitr) were brahmans... 0 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
unbreakable Posted September 17, 2008 Report Share Posted September 17, 2008 .. 0 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Mithar Posted September 17, 2008 Report Share Posted September 17, 2008 A Muslim woman can never marry a non Muslim. It's their tradition, and I respect that. Muslims are very firm in their faith. Unlike our Sikh girls who readily marry non Sikh males when given the chance, the Muslim woman in contrast would rarely marry a non Muslim. I've seen cases of love marriages between a Muslim girl and a non Muslim guy, but the non Muslim male always has to convert to Islam in order to marry her. I wish our girls were as firm in their faith. 0 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
shaheediyan Posted September 18, 2008 Report Share Posted September 18, 2008 "What of the man is a non-muslim, i.e. Hindu, Sikh? What should be done in this situation if he wants to marry a Muslim woman?" Mithar has answered yuor question. Mithar - the difference is that they take their dharm more seriously and give their kids a sense of bleonging via teaching them Arabic at infant age and not putting so much emphasis on having boys etc. http://www.sikhawareness.com/sikhawareness...sc&start=15 Listen to the interview - I believe Makdhum Ji makes some valid points re Sikh girls (irrelevant of his beliefs). 0 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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